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* A 28-year-old man
  malak - 11/04/06 13:43
  A 28-year-old man, who is 7 hours status-post an appendectomy, complains of severe lower abdominal-suprapubic pain. On examination, his incision is clean, dry, and intact and without pain to the touch. Palpation of his suprapubic area produces intense discomfort. He has not urinated since the procedure. The nurse notes that he is tachycardic, with a regular pulse of 110/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer a beta blocker such as metoprolol

B. Administer an antiadrenergic agent such as doxazosin

C. Begin IV antibiotics

D. Perform a straight catheterization of the bladder

E. Place a nasogastric tube (NGT)

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* Re:A 28-year-old man
  prunebelly - 11/04/06 13:47
  d you have to let him pee before doing any invasive stuff...  
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* Re:A 28-year-old man
  octpus - 11/04/06 13:48
  D. Post operative urinary retention is my suspicion.  
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* Re:A 28-year-old man
  confusedclinician - 04/03/12 10:51
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