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* q22
 #137997  
  sith - 11/12/06 16:08
 
 
22. A 3-year-old girl is brought to the physician after her mother noted blood on her underpants. Examination shows genital condylomata acuminata in the perineal, peri-introital, labial, and anal areas. Some of the pedunculated condylomata appear to have caused the bleeding. She has no visible intravaginal condylomata or vaginal or anal tears. Her mother has a palmar wart on her hand but no history of condylomata acuminata. Her mother has a boyfriend who does not live with them and who has never been left alone with the girl. They live with the mother's 27-year-old brother who only baby-sits the children when they are asleep. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A
) Psychiatric assessment of the mother

B
) DNA typing of the mother's palmar wart for papillomavirus

C
) Treatment of the mother's palmar wart

D
) Vaginal, anal, and throat cultures for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in the child

E
) Laser therapy of the condylomata acuminata in the child

 
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* Re:q22
#555884
  malak - 11/12/06 16:20
 
  Vaginal, anal, and throat cultures for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in the child  
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* Re:q22
#556002
  sheena2005 - 11/12/06 19:05
 
  why not E.
laser therapy of the condylomata accuminata
 
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* Re:q22
#556009
  malak - 11/12/06 19:09
 
  condylomata accuminata--is STD  
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