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| * 42-year-old woman - NBME 2 Q |
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<font size="3" face="arial">
A 42-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, comes to
the physician because of a 3-month history of swelling of her legs and mild abdominal pain and bloating. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities.
Rectovaginal examination shows fullness in the right
adnexa. Transvaginal ultrasonography shows an irregular mass in the right ovary with some solid components to a predominantly cystic lesion. Her serum CA 125 level
is 120 U/mL (N<35). Treatment with which of the
following is most likely to have prevented this patient's symptoms?
A) Antiestrogens
B) Antiprogestationals
C) Medroxyprogesterone
D) Oral contraceptives
E) Ovulation-inducing drugs
</i>Ari Vederci</i> </font>
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