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* ....5 good mcq's....................
 #231147  
  aiissman - 10/14/07 09:45
 
  A 45-year-old woman presents to your office after developing a pruritic rash and a fever. She first noticed it on her wrists two weeks ago but states that it has now spread to her feet as well. Her past medical history is significant for a seizure disorder following the removal of a meningioma. She has been treated with Dilantin. Physical examination is significant for icteric sclera. There are polygonal, flat-topped, violaceous papules limited to her wrists and her ankles. A white, reticulated, lacy lesion is also evident on examination of her buccal mucosa. Her liver is enlarged and is nontender to palpation. Laboratory analysis reveals: PT 11 seconds, albumin 3.6 g/dL, alkaline phosphatase 160 U/L, AST 700 U/L, ALT 960 U/L, ANA 1:160. Anti-hepatitis C virus (second generation) is negative; anti-hepatitis-B surface antibody (HBs) is positive; and anti-hepatitis-B core antibody (Hbc)is negative. She has an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 20 mm/h and a cholesterol of 160 mg/dL. Anti-smooth muscle antibody test is negative, and an ultrasound of the abdomen is normal. What would you do next?

(A) Start prednisone
B) Initiate interferon~-2b therapy
(C) Administer N-acetylcysteine
(D) Stop Dilantin
(E) Start methotrexate


A 28-year-old female comes to the emergency department with a headache and fever. She has not had any recent infections, nor has she been exposed to any drugs. Her medical history is unremarkable. On examination, the patient appears lethargic. Her temperature is 100.5 F, pulse is 100/minute, blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg, and respirations are 18/min. Her conjunctivae are yellowish, and scattered petechiae are noted on the lower extremities. The liver and spleen are not enlarged.

Laboratory studies show the following results: WBC 12,000/mm3; hematocrit 27%; platelets 14,000/mm3; bilirubin 4.5 mg/dL; direct bilirubin 0.5 mg/dL; BUN 40 mg/dL; creatinine 3.5 mg/dL. PT, fibrinogen, and PTT are all normal. Her peripheral blood smear shows fragmented red blood cells.

What is the most effective treatment for this patient?

(A) Splenectomy
(B) Glucocorticoids
(C) Plasmapheresis
(D) Intravenous immunoglobulins
(E) Platelet transfusion


A 58-year-old woman comes to your office. She is currently in atrial fibrillation and is asymptomatic. Her rate is 70/min. She denies hypertension, diabetes, and congestive failure. There is no other past medical history. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

(A) Warfarin and clopidogrel
(B) Heparin followed by warfarin
(C) Low-molecular-weight heparin
(D) Aspirin (325 mg) daily
(E) Warfarin to maintain an INR of 2 to 3


A 62-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of four days of dysuria, frequency, and urgency. He feels slightly feverish and has had dull, lower-back pain for the past few months. He has had several episodes of the dysuria over the last several months. Each time he was given antibiotics for one week, and the symptoms resolved. Currently his temperature is 100.4 F. The genital examination is unremarkable, and the digital rectal examination reveals a nontender prostate, which is normal in size and consistency, with no palpable masses. After gentle massage of the prostate, a small amount of purulent discharge is extruded from the urethral meatus. The urine culture grows 100,000 colonies/mL of E. coli. Urine cultures from his prior symptomatic episodes also grew E. coli but only 10,000 colonies/mL. Which of the following is most appropriate?

(A) Cystoscopy
(B) Ciprofloxacin and azithromycin orally once now
(C) Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole for one week
(D) Renal ultrasound
(E) Ciprofloxacin for 4 to 6 weeks


A 37-year-old, HIV-positive man comes for evaluation of generalized weakness, diffuse muscle pain, and frequent headaches that began eight weeks after the start of new HIV medications. He has never had any symptoms from his HIV infection, and he has a CD4 of 255/μL and an HIV RNA viral load of 25,000 (by PCR). He was recently started on zidovudine, lamivudine, and ritonavir/lopinavir. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. His medications include simvastatin and metoprolol. His physical examination is significant for diffuse muscle tenderness of the extremities. The range of motion is decreased because of pain with movement. His potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L, serum bicarbonate is 16 mEq/L, BUN is 35 mg/dL, creatinine is 1.6 mg/dL, and his viral load is RNA 40,000. The genotyping test result is pending. What will you do while waiting for this result?

(A) Switch zidovudine and lamivudine to didanosine and stavudine, and continue ritonavir
(B) Switch zidovudine, lamivudine, and ritonavir/lopinavir to didanosine, stavudine, and indinavir, and stop simvastatin
(C) Continue all medications but stop simvastatin
(D) Continue zidovudine and lamivudine, and switch ritonavir/lopinavir to efavirenz
(E) Switch to didanosine, stavudine, and efavirenz, and stop simvastatin


 
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* Re:....5 good mcq's....................
#989550
  hotobhaga - 10/14/07 10:15
 
  1. AA Lichen Planus
2. CC TTP
3. DD Less than 65 yrs..no other problems
4.EE old pt. Most likely causative factor E coli
5. C Stop simvastin..Start Pt on Gemfibrozil.
 
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* Re:....5 good mcq's....................
#989551
  aiissman - 10/14/07 10:18
 
  hoto, you got 60% rt.  
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* Re:....5 good mcq's....................
#989556
  hotobhaga - 10/14/07 10:23
 
  oh god..67% is needed  
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* Re:....5 good mcq's....................
#989576
  passwords - 10/14/07 10:38
 
  for the first question, shouldn't u stop dilantin, D?  
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* Re:....5 good mcq's....................
#989578
  passwords - 10/14/07 10:40
 
  d FOR THE FOURTH QUESTION. hE'S BEEN HAVING SYMPTOMS FOR MONTHS NOW.  
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* Re:....5 good mcq's....................
#989580
  passwords - 10/14/07 10:42
 
  AIISMAN, PLEASE TELL IF I'M RIGHT  
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* Re:....5 good mcq's....................
#989591
  aiissman - 10/14/07 10:50
 
  you are rt. for the first one, not the 4th.  
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* Re:....5 good mcq's....................
#989601
  aiissman - 10/14/07 11:01
 
  Answers are:
D
C
D
E
E

Thanks hoto and passwords.
 
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* Re:....5 good mcq's....................
#989607
  2006 - 10/14/07 11:04
 
  d: stop dilantin

c: plasmapheresis

d: aspirin

e: cipro

d:protease inhibitors have interactions with statins


 
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* Re:....5 good mcq's....................
#989612
  aiissman - 10/14/07 11:09
 
  (D) Stop Dilantin

Explanation:

The patient has Dilantin-induced hepatitis. Drug-induced hepatitis may resemble autoimmune hepatitis, including the presence of hypergammaglobulinemia and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANAs). This can result in a false-positive anti-HCV ELISA test. The liver biopsy confirms the picture of drug-induced cholestatic hepatitis. Prednisone and/or azathioprine are the initial treatments of choice for autoimmune hepatitis. Although this patient had a positive ANA, additional tests, such as anti-smooth muscle antibody and anti-LKM (liver, kidney, microsomes), are needed to confirm the diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis.


(C) Plasmapheresis

Explanation:

This woman has a combination of hemolytic anemia with fragmented RBCs on peripheral smear; thrombocytopenia; fever; neurologic symptoms; and renal dysfunction -- a classic pentad of symptoms that characterizes thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Approximately 90% of patients will respond to plasmapheresis. Patient should be emergently treated with large-volume plasmapheresis. Sixty to 80 mL/kg of plasma should be removed and replaced with fresh-frozen plasma. Treatment should be continued daily until the patient is in complete remission. Platelet transfusions in patients with TTP are contraindicated and can be associated with acute clinical deterioration. Antiplatelet agents, splenectomy, intravenous immunoglobulin, and immunosuppressive agents have not been of reliable benefit to patients with TTP. Each is less effective than plasmapheresis. Glucocorticoids are useful in patients if plasmapheresis does not work.


(D) Aspirin (325 mg) daily

Explanation:

This is a young patient who has an episode of atrial fibrillation in the absence of other preexisting conditions. The American College of Chest Physicians has established guidelines for anticoagulation in nonrheumatic atrial fibrillation. Patients with risk factors for the formation of thrombi such as a previous stroke, transient ischemic attack, systemic thromboembolism, left ventricular dysfunction, recent congestive heart failure, systemic hypertension, or diabetes should be placed on warfarin to an INR of 2 to 3. Patients with no risk factors who are younger than 65 years are considered to be low risk and should take one aspirin daily. Aspirin is also suitable for patients with a contraindication to warfarin therapy. The efficacy of other antiplatelet agents has not been proven in patients with atrial fibrillation.

(E) Ciprofloxacin for 4 to 6 weeks

Explanation:

This patient has chronic bacterial prostatitis. Chronic prostatitis can present with lower abdominal pain, perineal pain, or low back pain. There is usually no dysuria unless there is accompanying cystitis. On physical examination, the prostate usually feels normal and is nontender. As in this patient, chronic prostatitis may manifest as a recurrent urinary tract infection (UTI). The key to the diagnosis is culture of urine or urethral discharge. Pathogens for chronic prostatitis in older men are the same as for a UTI, with E. coli being the most common organism identified. One may extrude purulent discharge by massaging the prostate, which will grow the offending organism. One can also culture the urine post massage of the prostate, which should grow ten times more colonies than premassage urine. This patient cultured 10,000 colonies of E. coli in prior cultures, and currently he grew 100,000 colonies postprostatic massage. Ciprofloxacin for 7 days would be appropriate treatment if this were just a UTI. Therapy for one week is not long enough to clear chronic bacterial prostatitis. Most antibiotics don't have good penetration into the prostate, and it takes at least four weeks of therapy with ciprofloxacin to clear the infection. Ciprofloxacin and azithromycin for a single dose would be the treatment for urethritis. This patient does have a urethral discharge, which may be confused with urethritis. However, since the discharge is extruded only on palpation of the prostate, this strongly suggests that the prostate is the source of infection. Cystoscopy would be useful in a patient with recurrent UTIs in whom you suspected a structural malformation of the genitourinary tract. This patient's UTIs are originating from his chronically infected prostate. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole for 12 weeks is an acceptable alternative for treating chronic prostatitis.


(E) Switch to didanosine, stavudine, and efavirenz, and stop simvastatin

Explanation:

This patient presents with a drug interaction between the protease inhibitors and the HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. In this case, it is with ritonavir and simvastatin. This can produce significant toxicity from the statin. Ritonavir can increase the serum concentration of simvastatin, causing severe myalgias, rhabdomyolysis, and potential renal insufficiency. The next necessary step is to stop simvastatin or change the protease inhibitor to a non-nucleoside reverse-transcriptase inhibitor, such as efavirenz. However, in this case, the patient also presents with failure to achieve a reduction in HIV viral load of 1 log after eight weeks of therapy. In the event of inadequate treatment of HIV infection, the best choice would be to start two new nucleoside reverse-transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) and use efavirenz instead of ritonavir, in addition to discontinuing the simvastatin. It is not enough to change ritonavir to indinavir because high-level cross-resistance is very likely. Genotyping guides the therapeutic choice of all treatment failures. The best thing to do when treatment is insufficient is to use as least two, and preferably three, new drugs.

 
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