USMLE forum
Step 1
Step 2 CK
Step 2 CS
Matching & Residency
Step 3
  <<   < *  Step 1   *  >   >>  

* behavi q NBME
  ananda - 03/26/09 16:30
  46. A 37-year-old man returns to the physician because of persistent pain in his dominant hand resulting from tenosynovitis of the abductor pollicis longus. He is upset because he is no longer able to play tennis and softball, which he used to do regularly. He has been treated unsuccessfully over the past 7 months with ice, exercise, immobilization, physical therapy, and 2 corticosteroid injections. He says, "You are just shuttling me around through all these worthless treatments!" Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

) "Every step of the way I have prescribed the appropriate standard treatments."

) "I really can't discuss this with you until you calm down."

) "If that is how you feel now, perhaps it would be best to just change doctors."

) "It has really been very frustrating to get so little help from everything we've tried."

) "Perhaps you need to see a counselor to work on your problems with anger control."

) "You are going to have to learn how to play with your left hand."
Report Abuse


* Re:behavi q NBME
  mingalar - 03/26/09 16:33
  my guess is AAA?  
Report Abuse

* Re:behavi q NBME
  ananda - 03/26/09 16:34
  I think its D  
Report Abuse

* Re:behavi q NBME
  amany - 03/26/09 16:36
Report Abuse

* Re:behavi q NBME
  maverick26 - 03/26/09 17:02
  i think that its "d" too  
Report Abuse

          Page 1 of 1          

[<<First]   [<Prev]  ... Message ...  [Next >]   [Last >>]

Logon to post a new Message/Reply




Step 1 Step 2 CK Step 2 CS Matching & Residency Step 3 Classifieds
LoginUSMLE LinksHome