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* nbme 4 1 6
 #443453  
  zoh - 09/01/09 16:22
 
 
6. A 43-year-old man comes to the physician because of headache. blurred vision. and confusion for 2 days. He has not had weakness or numbness. difficulty walking.‘chest pain
or discomfort. diplopia. orvertigo. He has hypertension treated with propranolol but says that he does not take his medication regularly. His temperature is 3E5.4°C (9?.5°F).
pulse is ?4.··`min. respirations are l4.··`min. and blood pressure is l90.··`120 mm Hg. The neck is supple. Funduscopic examination shows enlargement ofthe optic discs with
indistinct borders. Blood vessels nearthe discs are indistinct. The lungs are clearto auscultation. There is an S4 with no murmur. Neurologic examination shows no
abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
O A) Cerebral infarction
O B) lylalignant hypertension
O C) Retinal detachment
O D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
O E) Transient ischemic attack
 
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* Re:nbme 4 1 6
#1862527
  drdusmle2009 - 09/01/09 16:49
 
  BBBBBBBBBBBBBB
i guess it should be malignanat htn
 
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