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* MCQ-Infertility
 #429512  
  funfortest - 07/19/09 18:04
 
  A 23-year-old white nulligravid woman with 2-year history of primary infertility. Menstrual periods occur at regular 28-day intervals. She has a history of chronic pelvic pain. Analysis of her husband's semen shows a sperm count of 40 million with 65% motility and normal morphology. Diagnostic laparoscopy with hydrotubation shows normal pelvic anatomy, with no evidence of endometriosis or pelvic adhesions. Both fallopian tubes spill methylene blue dye. The patient's basal body temperatures recorded during the past month are shown. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's inability to conceive?

A) Anovulation
B) Male factor infertility
C) Old pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Polycystic ovary syndrome
E) No cause can be identified at this time

 
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* Re:MCQ-Infertility
#1817633
  invinoveritas - 07/19/09 18:06
 
  please, be kind, make sure others know that it's nbme q  
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* Re:MCQ-Infertility
#1817647
  funfortest - 07/19/09 18:12
 
  Sorry, what is your answer?  
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* Re:MCQ-Infertility
#1817650
  harry206 - 07/19/09 18:17
 
  yes this is nbme q...

but what is answer invinoveritas,

i marked E
 
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* Re:MCQ-Infertility
#1817655
  drminga - 07/19/09 18:20
 
  i think it is E.

the picture showed she had temp increase. so she had anovulation. sperm count was normal. diagnotic laparoscopy with hydrotubation showed normal pelvic anatomy although pt has a chronic pelvic pain. there is nowhere said that pt has s&s of PCOS. so the answer at this point is E. most of the time, we dont find any cause for infertility.
 
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* Re:MCQ-Infertility
#1817661
  harry206 - 07/19/09 18:22
 
  Thnx drminga...  
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* Re:MCQ-Infertility
#1817663
  apple - 07/19/09 18:26
 
  ya i guess e too  
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