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* q1
 #848020  
  yousmle99 - 02/09/18 15:49
 
  To assess the risk of erythroblastosis fetalis occurring during the future pregnancy of an Rh-negative
woman, a clinician sends a sample of serum for detection of anti Rh-blood group antibodies.The laboratory performs an indirect Coombsítest by mixing the patientís serum with Rh-positive RBCs and then adding an anti-IgG antibody.In doing so, the laboratory technician observes agglutination of the RBCs. After receiving this test result, the clinician would be correct to conclude which of the following?

(A) The Coombsí test yielded a negative result,and therefore the mother does not have anti-Rh antibodies
(B) The laboratory performed the test incorrectly;they should have mixed the patientís serum with Rh-negative rather than Rhpositive RBCs
(C) The patient has had previous pregnancies and all of her children are Rh-negative
(D) The patient is currently pregnant with an Rh-positive fetus
(E) The presence of anti-Rh antibodies in the patientís serum suggests that she has been pregnant with an Rh-positive fetus
 
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* Re:q1
#3360579
  cardio69 - 02/12/18 15:57
 
  E/
Thank u 4q.
 
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* Re:q1
#3360628
  crossover - 02/12/18 19:22
 
  erythroblastosis fetalis affect subsequent pregnancy not the first one. The agglutination might have implied that she is produced anti D igG antibodies after the first preganacy with a Rh(t) fetus  
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* Re:q1
#3360702
  yousmle99 - 02/13/18 15:08
 
  You both are correct.

Thanks for answering (:

Otherwise this forum has become Study partner forum NOT usmle forum any more. No one discuss or post questions or discuss topics but "SP POSTS EVERYWHERE".

Please, cardio69 and crossover- post more questions everyday so that coming here gives more kick to start study day C:


 
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