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* help!
 #849980  
  elementalize - 04/07/18 16:04
 
  A 37-year-old man comes to the physician because of nonradiating low back pain for 3 days. The pain began after he worked in his yard. He has not had any change in bowel movements or urination. He had one similar episode 3 years ago that resolved spontaneously. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the back shows bilateral paravertebral muscle spasm. Range of motion is limited by pain. Straight-leg raising is negative. In addition to analgesia, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

a) bed rest
b) regular activity
c) spine X-ray
d) MRI spine

e) Lumbar spine traction
___

don't understand the answer
 
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* Re:help!
#3364926
  virgo32 - 04/08/18 13:58
 
  B..  
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