USMLE forum
Step 1
Step 2 CK
Step 2 CS
Matching & Residency
Step 3
  <<   < *  Step 1   *  >   >>  

* Old NBME neuro question - Can anyone explain plz
  mocha260 - 10/17/20 17:04
  A 61-year-old man with a history of hypertension has been in excellent health until he presents with vertigo and unsteadiness lasting for 2 days. He then develops nausea, vomiting, dysphagia, hoarseness, ataxia, left facial pain, and right-sided sensory loss. There is no weakness. On examination, he is alert, with a normal mental status. He vomits with head movement. There is skew deviation of the eyes, left ptosis, clumsiness of the left arm, and titubation.
He has loss of pin and temperature sensation on the right arm and leg and decreased joint position sensation in the left foot. He is unable to walk.

1. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in this patient might be expected to show which of the following?
a. Basilar artery tip aneurysm
b. Right lateral medullary infarction
c. Left lateral medullary infarction
d. Left medial medullary infarction
e. Right medial medullary infarction

Wallenberg is ipsilateral LOSS of pain and temperature of the face = so in this pt its on Right face since he can feel his left facial pain so based on that I picked B. But its wrong. Why am I wrong?

Answer is C. I don't get it
Report Abuse


          Page 1 of 1          

[<<First]   [<Prev]  ... Message ...  [Next >]   [Last >>]

Logon to post a new Message/Reply




Step 1 Step 2 CK Step 2 CS Matching & Residency Step 3 Classifieds
LoginUSMLE LinksHome