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* FRED --- NEURO q....
  mocha260 - 09/12/20 06:26
  A 33-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital because of visual field loss following a 48-hour history of acute eye pain. She also has a 3-week history of numbness and a feeling of "heaviness" in both legs. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Six weeks ago, she returned from a hiking expedition in the northeastern USA; she has no recent history of international travel. Vital signs are within normal limits. Muscle strength is 5/5 in the upper extremities, 3/5 in the hip flexors and knee extensors, and 4/5 in the knee flexors and ankle dorsiflexors. Patellar and ankle reflexes are 3+ bilaterally, and there is nonsustained ankle clonus bilaterally. Sensation to pinprick is absent throughout the lower extremities. Ophthalmologic examination discloses optic neuritis and reconfirms the visual field loss. Which of the following studies is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

(C) Lumbar puncture for examination of cerebrospinal fluid
(E) MRI of the brain

isn't LP - oligoclonal bands used for confirming MS?
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* Re:FRED --- NEURO q....
  studytea - 09/14/20 00:25
  According to UW
--- Only do LP - oligoclonal IgG band test if Dx is not clear
--- Otherwise FIRST = T2 MRI disseminated in time and space - periventricular, juxatacortical, infratentorial, or spinal cord.
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