08-23-2014, 09:51 AM
A 24-year-old woman presents to her physician because of dysuria for 3 days that has been worsening. Within the past month she has had a new sex partner. Her physical examination is unremarkable. Urinalysis reveals 2+ leukocytes and no nitrates. The patient is sent home with a 3-day course of ciprofloxacin. The patient returns 4 days after her initial visit because of continued worsening of her symptoms. She states that she took the full course of her antibiotic. A urine culture is sent and shows no growth.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A.Administer empiric fluconazole
B.Extend the course of therapy to a total of 7-10 days, as this is now considered a complicated infection
C.No treatment is required
D.Send another culture of her urine
E.Send cervical samples for chlamydia and gonorrhea.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A.Administer empiric fluconazole
B.Extend the course of therapy to a total of 7-10 days, as this is now considered a complicated infection
C.No treatment is required
D.Send another culture of her urine
E.Send cervical samples for chlamydia and gonorrhea.