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20-year-old female comes to the physician because she has never had a period. She has no medical problems, has never had surgery, and takes no medications. Examination shows that she is a tall female with long extremities. She has normal size breasts, although the areolas are pale. She has little axillary hair. Pelvic examination is significant for scant pubic hair and a short, blind-ended vaginal pouch. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
a) No intervention is necessary
b)Bilateral gonadectomy
c)Unilateral gonadectomy
d)Bilateral mastectomy
e)Unilateral mastectomy

b.......

does she have streaked gonads?

yeppp..bbbb and estrogen supplement

normal breast is bcoz of conversion of testosterone to estrogen....no axillary and pubic hair is bcoz of androgen insensitivity

no axillary and pubic hairs means cant be mullerian agenesis

androgen insensivity syndrome bbb