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A 15-year-old boy is concerned about his lack of pubic
hair, deep voice, and muscle growth. On physical examination
you confirm that his testicles have not enlarged
and he lacks pubic hair. Which of the following statements
about this situation is correct?
(A) The patient will most likely progress through puberty
without intervention
(B) Testosterone should be administered
© Growth hormone should be given
(D) A hormonally active adrenal tumor is likely
(E) Prednisone will result in an amelioration of the
symptoms
bb
hair transplantation and call it GOOD! Smile))))))
It looks like a case of criptorchidism,, testicular ca is coplication i think testosterone should be admins. ccc.......... correct me if am wrong
hair transplantation?
where?
ha-ha! where is your sense of humorSmile))) i am tired and jokingSmile
iren you are funny, Is it necessary to transplant those hair, dont try to use OKT3 after your transplantationSmile
The answer is A.

About 3% of males fail to reach puberty (enlargement of testes with testosterone production, deepening of the voice, growth of facial and pubic hair) by age 15.

The vast majority of these individuals with delayed puberty (due to functional hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal delay) will progress through puberty normally, so reassurance should be the primary treatment.
Occasionally, mainly for psychosocial reasons, a trial of androgen, perhaps low-dose oral oxandrolone, is reasonable.
Hormonally active tumors may be associated with premature, rather than delayed, puberty. There are rare causes of pubertal delay based on congenital defects in the hypothalamic-pituitary axis, such as Kallmann syndrome, or due to gonadal problems, such as orchitis or bilateral undescended testes.
that's right, for psychosocial reasons he needs hair transplantation, to make him fell good!
Good night !
thanks okt!
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