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Full Version: A 42-year-old man consults - stefan78
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A 42-year-old man consults a physician because he has a "lump" on his forearm. Examination
of the arm demonstrates a 3-cm diameter nodule protruding above the forearm surface. The
lesion is covered with apparently normal skin and is soft and freely movable. It location
appears to be subcutaneous. The lesion has been slowly growing over the past 2 years, and
the patient has experienced no discomfort. He has consulted a physician at this time because
his wife keeps pestering him to get something done about it. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Capillary hemangioma
B. Dermatofibroma
C. Intradermal nevus
D. Lipoma
E. Seborrheic keratosis
d.
ddddddddddddddd classical
B
bb
pacemaker...how did u diffrentiate between lipoma n dermatofibroma?
Dermatofibroma (choice B) causes a firm, red to brown, small papule or nodule that is
most frequently found on the legs.
ok thanks stefan a lot..so the ans is dd..