05-10-2008, 02:15 PM
A 7month old boy is brought to the pediatrician because the mom noticed the boy only had 1 testicle. The child was born through normal vaginal delivery, with no complications at normal birth weight. Apgar scores were 7 and 9 respectively. The child does not have any difficulty with urination. The scrotum does not appear enlarged and only one testicle is palpated. What is the next step in management?
A) Serum AFP levels
B) Serum hCG levels
C) Orchieplexy
D) Circumscise
E) Manipulate scrotum
F) CT scan of abdomen/pelvis
G) Ultrasound of abdomen/pelvis
H) Wait until 1yo and then send for orchieplexy
A) Serum AFP levels
B) Serum hCG levels
C) Orchieplexy
D) Circumscise
E) Manipulate scrotum
F) CT scan of abdomen/pelvis
G) Ultrasound of abdomen/pelvis
H) Wait until 1yo and then send for orchieplexy