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+--- Thread: NBME4 discussion, every one is welcome! - grad1980 (/showthread.php?tid=632259)
0 - ArchivalUser - 11-20-2011
@ 4usmle and grad1980-when would be exploratory lap be an answer to scenario like above?
0 - ArchivalUser - 11-20-2011
@dudducleveland,
first thing first, restore fluid n electrolyte abnormalities if present,
step2 is NG decompression
step 3 is laprotomy.
4 - ArchivalUser - 11-20-2011
thank you grad1980. i took ext. feed back as well. Regarding, Qs 2) i marked CT scan and i got wrong response, So thats why i was very confused. may be something wrong. I think CT scan answer is more appealing. I really appreciate your help.
0 - ArchivalUser - 11-20-2011
thats very strange 4usmlee, what can i say?
well t.c n happy studies
see u soon for nbme3 discussion
0 - ArchivalUser - 12-12-2011
42 ??????
0 - ArchivalUser - 08-10-2014
40. A previously healthy 37-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, comes to the physician because of painful, irregular menses and intermittent vaginal spotting for 3 months. Menses occur at 26- to 28-day intervals. Her last menstrual period was 1 week ago. She is not sexually active. An endometrial biopsy 1 month ago showed secretory endometrium. Pelvic examination shows a 10-cm, soft, tender uterus. The ovaries cannot be palpated. There are no masses. Saline infusion ultrasonography shows a diffusely enlarged uterus and no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A
) Adenomyosis
B
) Anovulatory bleeding
C
) Endometrial cancer
D
) Leiomyomata uteri
E
) Uterine polyp
is it D?
Nope. It's A. The clue is the diffusely enlarged uterus. You'd get a focal enlargement if it was fibroids.
0 - ArchivalUser - 08-24-2014
Hey guys can someone help with this question?
8. A 27year old woman is brought to the physician because of a 3-day history of visual loss and aching discomfort in her right eye. Three years ago, she vertigo, diplopia and an ataxic gait and was diagnosed with an inner ear infection. Her symptoms resolved within 1month without treatment. Examination today shows markedly reduced visual acuity on the right, the peripheral visual fields are full to confrontation. Color vision is decreased in the right eye. The right eye does not react to direct light but has a normal consensual response. Fundoscopic examination shows no abnormalitie. She has an ataxic gait. Babinski sign is present bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
A) Carotid ultrasonography
B) Electromyography
C) Visual evoked potentials
D) CT scan of head with contrast
E)MRI of the brain with contrast
0 - ArchivalUser - 08-26-2014
8. A 27year old woman is brought to the physician because of a 3-day history of visual loss and aching discomfort in her right eye. Three years ago, she vertigo, diplopia and an ataxic gait and was diagnosed with an inner ear infection. Her symptoms resolved within 1month without treatment. Examination today shows markedly reduced visual acuity on the right, the peripheral visual fields are full to confrontation. Color vision is decreased in the right eye. The right eye does not react to direct light but has a normal consensual response. Fundoscopic examination shows no abnormalitie. She has an ataxic gait. Babinski sign is present bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
A) Carotid ultrasonography
B) Electromyography
C) Visual evoked potentials
D) CT scan of head with contrast
E)MRI of the brain with contrast
The answer is E. She has symptoms of MS.
123 - ArchivalUser - 08-28-2014
41 b is dat sure or it's e?
0 - ArchivalUser - 02-16-2015
13. C- Pt not stable enough to do a walking stress test
33. D- Lactated ringer is treatment of choice in trauma/ hemorrhage, then observe vitals to see if they respond to the resuscitation or not. If no to emergency surgery, if they stabilize well then imaging.
42. H- CKD is a common cause of Erythropoietin deficiency anemia in pts with normocytic MCV (80-100) on dialysis.