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+--- Thread: stefan ques-05 - stefan78 (/showthread.php?tid=350681)
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stefan ques-05 - stefan78 - ArchivalUser - 10-20-2008
A 27-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with "red urine" and a 7-hour history of severe right-sided flank and groin pain. She has no other past medical history and takes only oral contraceptive pills for medications. She had one episode of vomiting in that period of time. She appears otherwise healthy but in moderate discomfort. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 123/90 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. Her physical examinaiton is notable for mild suprapubic tenderness but no costovertebral angle tenderness. Her urine is dipstick positive for red blood cells. The most appropriate next step in the evaluation is a/an
A. abdominal CT scan with contrast
B. abdominal radiograph
C. abdominal ultrasound
D. laparoscopy
E. stone-protocol abdominal CT
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-20-2008
C. abdominal ultrasound
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-20-2008
B
patient seems to have renal colic pain. ( right side flank/ groin down pain), so I decide to pick up AXR first
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-20-2008
c ---?
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-20-2008
eeee
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-20-2008
Q-05
B
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-20-2008
eee,, uric acid stones are radiolucent so neg on xray
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-20-2008
ee non contrat ct
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-20-2008
Cc
0 - ArchivalUser - 10-20-2008
stefan78 please provide answer thanks