CT scan-easy - okt3

[ArchivalUser]

A 21-year-old man with new onset of seizures and no history of hypertension is evaluated with a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the head, which demonstrates a mixed parenchymal and subarachnoid hemorrhage. The parenchymal hemorrhage is centered over one cerebral hemisphere.

Which of the following is the most likely source of the hemorrhage?

A. Arteriovenous malformation

B. Berry aneurysm

C. Bridging vein

D. Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm

E. Middle meningeal artery

[ArchivalUser]

aaa

[ArchivalUser]

D

[ArchivalUser]

A

[ArchivalUser]

aaaaaaa

[ArchivalUser]

The correct answer is A.

Arteriovenous malformations are composed of complex tangles of congenitally malformed vessels that typically involve the superficial or deep cerebral hemispheres. There is a slight male predominance, and bleeding typically occurs in adolescence or young adulthood. Symptoms may be those of subarachnoid hemorrhage (headache, increased intracranial pressure) and/or seizures. Surgical resection is usually required for therapy.

Berry aneurysms (choice B) can produce both subarachnoid and parenchymal hemorrhage, but are usually centered near the base of the brain.

Bleeding from bridging veins (choice C) causes subdural hematoma.

Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms (choice D) are small, intraparenchymal aneurysms that are related to hypertension.

Rupture of the middle meningeal artery (choice E) causes epidural