can someone explain this question - mednmed

[ArchivalUser]

41. A 4080-g (9-lb) male newborn is delivered at
term to a
32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1. Apgar scores
are 8 and 9 at 1 and 5
minutes, respectively. Examination in the delivery
room shows fracture of
the right clavicle. Which of the following is the
most likely sequela
of this condition?

A
) Correction only with casting

B
) Correction only with physical therapy

C
) Left-hand dominance

D
) Permanent nerve damage

E
) Spontaneous healing without treatment

[ArchivalUser]

E) Spontaneous healing without treatment ( it is the most likely sequela)
please have a doubt is it NBME Q if it is PLEASE DO NOT FORGET to labeled your Qs as NBME QS.
thanks in advance.

[ArchivalUser]

E) Spontaneous healing without treatment ( it is the most likely sequela)

please have a doubt is it NBME Q if it is PLEASE DO NOT FORGET to labeled your Qs as NBME QS.
thanks in advance.

[ArchivalUser]

thanks algeria

yes it is nbme 2 question

[ArchivalUser]

ee