06-11-2007, 02:37 PM
A 75-year-old woman comes to the physician because of irregular vaginal bleeding. She has been menopausal for the past 25 years, but has noted on-and-off spotting for the past 2 years, which she finds intolerable. She has a complicated past medical history including hypertension, diabetes, and severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Examination is
unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that demonstrates an endometrial polyp with atypical cells that are difficult to grade. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Hormone replacement therapy
B. Oral contraceptive pill
C. Hysteroscopy
D. Laparoscopy
E. Hysterectomy
which one and why??
unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that demonstrates an endometrial polyp with atypical cells that are difficult to grade. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Hormone replacement therapy
B. Oral contraceptive pill
C. Hysteroscopy
D. Laparoscopy
E. Hysterectomy
which one and why??