How many patients would have to be treated - proteus

[ArchivalUser]

thanx....i want to make sure abut this q!

[ArchivalUser]

if it is a new concept, please read both NNT and NNH try to answer this qs and I will help you with the explan.


How to Calculate NNT

NNT = 1/ARR
ARR = |CER - EER|
where
ARR = Absolute risk reduction
CER = control group event rate
EER = experimental group event rate

in this case the answer is NNH, the best way to learn is to find the answer yourself because you will not forget during the exam and you will know the diff. between those 2 number

Hope it help

[ArchivalUser]

thanks ok, i dont think board q give us something with lengthy calcualtion and formula...that is wht i know and hope so!!
i wud say : this is an iq q and the answ shud be A: (at least) 50 as the drug increases the risk up to 50%...still am looking for the explanation and answ.

[ArchivalUser]

P R O T E U S PLEASE POST explan., i will if you dont mind



john2007, I dont know about the NNH, but I had one qs about NNT and I was able to recall the formula and the answer was obvious, no need complex calculation.

There is one on NBME 4 about NNT

[ArchivalUser]

ok3: thanks a lot....Prot : have u fund the anws for this one?/////i think he is lost in lots of q which has posted and is trying to find the answ....i wish he cud send us a block of q....that wud save us and him a lot of time!!! gl

[ArchivalUser]

john want to ask you somethin, wat is ur email, sorry to disturb your study.

[ArchivalUser]

merichr2004*yahoo

[ArchivalUser]

expl. please!!!
is it CC?

[ArchivalUser]

well i think im sure it is c
since thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of intracranial hemorrhage to 1%.
which means 1 case in every 100 will develop intracranial hemorrhage,
that means, in other words, after treating 100 patients we'll get 1 case of intracranial bleed.
but anyway ..lets wait so that proteus can reconfirm.

[ArchivalUser]

Choice (D) is the correct answer. The number need to harm (NNH) is calculated by taking the reciprocal of the absolute risk increase. In this case, thrombolytic therapy raises the risk of an intracranial hemorrhage from 0.2% to 1%. The absolute risk increase is therefore 1 - 0.2 = 0.8%. There is a 0.8% absolute risk increase in intracranial hemorrhage with the use of thrombolytics. To calculate the number needed to harm, take the reciprocal of 0.8%, which equals 1 / 0.008 = 125. What this means is that 125 patients must be treated with thrombolytics before causing 1 intracranial hemorrhage. The other choices are incorrect.

many thanks to ok!