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15) on the list it the only thing that can bring on PAIN. Lipoma and cancers are usually painless. I had this questions on kaplan and world.. so I'm guessing it will show up!! Usually it proceed MONO or a strep infection!! However in this patient its because of the ACNE
Know thinking of it Answer 16 is B!! someone double check me please ALEXXA!!
Usually the TX is Remove after a center size without FNA.. drawing a blank on the size
Teens present with Red, tender skin over lymph node
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Hope that helps.. if i just made you more lost let me know hehehe
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q11)
Ans: A) Chemotherapy
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"Resectable lesions" of small cell carcinoma are treated with chemotherapy:VP16 Etoposide and Platinum is the Tx of choice.
Remember: >>>> SURGERY IS NOT INDICATED FOR THESE LESIONS
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12.
A 27-year-old African American woman comes to the office for her periodic health evaluation. During the examination she complains of a thick, "cottage-cheese" vaginal discharge with itching for the past 2 days. She is sexually active with one partner and she has been using a cyclic oral contraceptive for birth control. Physical examination shows a vaginal discharge. A wet mount preparation of the discharge is shown.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A) Acyclovir
B) Doxycycline
C) Erythromycin
D) Metronidazole
E) Miconazole
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q12)
Ans: E) Miconazole
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::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::::
CANDIDA VAGINITIS
Candida can be seen in a cervical sample as segmented HYPHAE and Spores. The hyphae often protrude from groups of squamous cells or they can be seen as “kebabs”.
Treatment:
Single dose of oral Fluconazole or any “azole”
If single dose didn’t work, then 7 days treatment
If recurrent infections, test for HIV
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13.
A 27-year-old woman comes to the office because of a 1-year history of constant, dull pressure in her lower abdomen that worsens during intercourse and menses. She says her menses occur every 28 days and last for 4 days; her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She does not have dysmenorrhea or menorrhagia. Medical history is otherwise unremarkable. She takes an oral contraceptive. Vital signs are normal. Uterine size on bimanual examination is consistent with a 14-week gestation with irregular contour at the fundus. No adnexal masses are palpated. Results of laboratory studies are within the reference ranges, and serum β-hCG concentration is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic study of the pelvis at this time?
A) CT scan
B) Hysterosalpingography
C) MRI
D) Sonohysterography
E) Ultrasonography
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Katmd.........thanks for your reply
Grazie.....13....D t/v US(sonohysterography),all agree on this
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13 is E percep!! You have to think adenomyosis
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q13)
Ans: E) Ultrasonography
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This pt seems to have Adenomyosis, big belly, asymptomatic beside the pressure discomfort. After pelvic exam, next step is US that shows ectopic endometrial glands and stroma within the myometrium.
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now i see option5 as ultrasonography.
sonohysterography is also US of pevis T/V or transabdominal.
is there a difference btw above two choices..????
