Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
what /what the next here........ - a_antibody
#1
A 78-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital because of fever, flank pain, and mental obtundation. On arrival to the hospital, she was minimally responsive and was found to have a white blood cell count of 43,000/mm3 with a profound left shift. Urinalysis revealed packed white cells. A renal ultrasound demonstrated a left hydronephrosis and hydroureter. A CT scan confirmed the presence of an obstructing stone. Her vital signs on admission showed a temperature of 39.5 C (103.1 F), blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg, pulse of 112/min, and respirations of 18/min. Intravenous pressors were initiated. Three sets of blood cultures came back positive for Gram-negative rods within 2 hours. The most appropriate next step in management is to

A. administer antibiotics, intravenously, and observe


B. insert a nephrostomy tube, percutaneously


C. perform extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)


D. schedule cystoscopy and ureteral stent placement


E. schedule a nephrectomy
Reply
#2
a..........
Reply
#3
AAA
Reply
#4
bbbbbb
Reply
#5
AAAAAAAAA, PATIENT IS HYPOTENSIVE AND MENTAL OBTUNDATION ....C.I. FOR ANY SURGICAL PROCEDURE
Reply
#6
A. administer antibiotics, intravenously, and observe

Reply
« Next Oldest | Next Newest »


Forum Jump: