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nbme 2 block 3 (1) - vbhalani
#1
2. A 57-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of an episode

of confusion, nervousness, sweating, and palpitations 1 hour ago. He has had four

similar episodes over the past 3 weeks; they last 2 to 3 minutes and are relieved

by ingesting solid food or liquids. His blood pressure is 140/74 mm Hg, pulse is

76/min, and respirations are 18/min. Examination shows no other abnormalities.

The most appropriate next step in diagnosis is serum measurement of which of the

following?

A
) Fasting gastrin level

B
) Fasting insulin and glucose levels

C
) Glucagon level

D
) Glucose and somatostatin level

E
) Glucose and vasoactive intestinal polypeptide levels
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#2
bb
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#3
why B? please explain?
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#4
Insulinoma is the most common cause of intrinsic hypoglycemia.
Correct me if I am wrong.
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#5
Insulinoma
a.  Insulin-secreting β-islet cell tumor causing hypoglycemia
b.  H/P = headache, visual changes, confusion, weakness, mood instability, palpitations, diaphoresis

c.  Labs =
increased fasting insulin, spontaneous hypoglycemia,
positive C-peptide

d.  Radiology = CT, US, or indium-labeled octreotide scintigraphy may be useful for localizing tumor e.  Treatment = surgical resection; diazoxide or octreotide may relieve symptoms in nonresectable disease

Step-Up to USMLE Step 2 (Step-Up Series)
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#6
it`s b
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#7
hi any chance you can send me form 2 ck please
albert_kinny

I appreciate your help thank you
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