q-9 - stefanbg

[ArchivalUser]

A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic for vaginal discharge and dyspareunia. Her last pelvic exam and Pap smear six years ago were normal. Her only medication is oral contraceptives. She is sexually active with one partner and denies a history of sexually transmitted diseases. Examination of the pelvis reveals a mucopurulent, nonodorous, whitish discharge at the endocervical os. The cervix appears edematous and erythematous with minimal bleeding noted with scraping. What is the next appropriate step in the management of this patient?

(A) Doxycycline
(B) Azithromycin and ceftriaxone
© Metronidazole
(D) Wait for culture and immunofluorescence testing results
(E) Azithromycin

[ArchivalUser]

B, mucopurulent

[ArchivalUser]

when ever you tx for one you tx for the other treat both : BBB for both