archer q bank 298? - neha38

[ArchivalUser]

A 6 year old boy presents to your office with a limp on the right side. He denies any falls or trauma. Mother reports that the limp has been present for several weeks. She reports that the patient was seen in the Emergency Room when the limp was first observed. X-rays obtained at that time were normal and so, he was discharged. There is no history of fever. He denies any pain. Family history is unremarkable. On examination, he is afebrile . His right lower extremity appears one inch shorter than the left. Upon standing and walking, his pelvis appears to be tilted towards the left. Which of the following is most likely to be abnormal in this condition?
A) External rotation of hip
B) Tibial tuberosity
C) X-ray of the Knee
D) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
E) Internal rotation and abduction of hip

[ArchivalUser]

E.SCFE

[ArchivalUser]

i agree with e but its most likely to be perthes and not scfe which is usually more in age around 13 with obesity and x rays are pathognomic and when it happens there is always a history of trauma

[ArchivalUser]

you are right its LCPD

[ArchivalUser]

this is lcpd because its painless limp too. E is answer in any case SCFE or LCPD. Very important question on exam

[ArchivalUser]

e ..lcpd

[ArchivalUser]

good Q
thanks

gl