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A 24-year-old man presents with a lump in his right testicle. An ultrasound is done that confirms the presence of a 2-cm nodule. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis are normal. Serum tumor markers reveal a β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG) of 500 mIU/mL (normal:
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Sounds like a pure seminoma! But there's obviously missing info from the question.
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A 24-year-old man presents with a lump in his right testicle. An ultrasound is done that confirms the presence of a 2-cm nodule. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis are normal. Serum tumor markers reveal a β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG) of 500 mIU/mL (normal: less than 5) and a serum α-fetoprotein level of 200 mIU/mL (normal: less than 15). He undergoes inguinal orchiectomy, which reveals tumor limited to the testis. The pathology reveals a seminoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate for this patient?
A. Radiation therapy
B. Radiation therapy plus chemotherapy with bleomycin/etoposide/cisplatin (BEP)
C. Chemotherapy with BEP
D. Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (RPLND)
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Hi Odin, great question. I guess RPLND will be better as a salvage therapy?
even though the tumor is primarily limited to testis and as it has been taken out theres no point of going thru the other three options. let me know if i am in wrong page. Thanks.
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testicular tumours are radiosensitive..so i would go with A.
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i think qs is about stage 1A,( though info may not be complete)
after orchiectomy....most appropriate tx optpions are survielence,radiation,chemotherapy,
but not RPLND.
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sublimation, this is not Seminoma. Pathology shows seminoma but when AFP is elevated, it is always treated as Non Seminomas.