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NBME Surgery Self Assessment Form 4 help - kerrplank
#1
1. Three days after undergoing an appendectomy for a perforated appendix, a 42 year old man develops dypsnea. Aterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:

pH = 7.35
PCO2 = 35
PO2 = 85
HCO3 = 22

Ventilation-perfusion lung scans show a large perfusion defect in the left lower lobe with adequate ventilation. Which of the following is the most appropriate net step in management?

A) Administration of heparin
B) Administration of warfarin
C) Pulmonary angiography
D) Placement of vena cava filter
E) Pulmonary embolectomy (wrong)

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#2
Sorry, meant to post in the step 2 CK section
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#3
PE/Treat w Heparin.
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#4
A. Administration of heparin
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