FRED q -- UW said something else - Obgyn - mocha260

[ArchivalUser]

A 28-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 39 weeks’ gestation with an intrauterine pregnancy, is admitted to the hospital for induction of labor. Her pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes treated with insulin during the third trimester and polyhydramnios. Her first pregnancy ended in spontaneous vaginal delivery of a healthy 3600-g (7-lb 15-oz) newborn at term. Leopold maneuvers estimate a fetal weight of 4000 g (8 lb 13 oz). The cervix is 2 cm dilated and 80% effaced; the vertex is at –3 station. Ultrasonography shows the fetus in a cephalic presentation. The amniotic fluid index is 30 cm (N=10–20). Intravenous administration of oxytocin is begun. Four hours later, the patient has regular, painful contractions that occur every 2 minutes and last 60 seconds. The cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced; the vertex is at –2 station. Artificial rupture of membranes is performed, and there is copious clear amniotic fluid. Fetal heart tracing 10 minutes later is shown. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the fetal heart tracing findings?

PICTURE SHOWS LATE DECELERATION

(A) Occult shoulder dystocia
(B) Umbilical cord prolapse
© Uterine hyperstimulation
(D) Uterine rupture
(E) Uteroplacental insufficiency

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I know late deceleration is asso with UPI so I picked that ... but the answer is B- UCP???

According to UW late decele is asso with UPI not UCP.

[ArchivalUser]

It's likely cuz of the AROM causing U.C. proloapse.